/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
Were men in ancient Greece/classical Rome/the Renaissance as muscular as depicted in the art of their time?
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Considering the excessive alcohol consumption in 19th and early 20th century United States, did the most prominent people (e.g. elected officials, celebrities) consume substantially less than the average person?
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I'm currently reading a book about the 1980 Wimbledon tennis tournament. The author states that, "after a series of riots at English sporting events [in the mid-'80s]," Wimbledon removed Centre Court's standing-room only sections. What riots is the author referring to, and why did they occur?
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During the Archaic period of Greece, we see a large amount of colonization taking place. Why were these colonies set up as independent poleis as opposed to some form of empire? Why not maintain control of such a resource?
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